Israel - Conversion - End Times

I remember one high-profile priest about 5 years ago told us during the sermon that the world will not end until Israel converts. He did not say it will end immediately after the conversion or anything of that sort. He empahasized it was his opinion and he’s in no way prediciting the end times. He was explaining it a bit but I was a bit too young then and was just learning the difference between Jews, Gentiles, etc.

Any idea why he came up with that? Right or wrong it doesn’t matter to me as I’m not particularly interested in end times speculations, I just wanted to know his basis for that.


The Bible does not come straight out with such a statement. Some protestants infer it from this passage:

For I do not want you, brethren, to be uninformed of this mystery—so that you will not be wise in your own estimation—that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in; and so all Israel will be saved; just as it is written [in Hosea 2:25]: The Deliverer will come from Zion, He will remove ungodliness from Jacob.
This is my covenant with them, When I take away their sins. [Romans 2:25-27]

The passage does not infer any correlation with the end times, but a lot of protestants are all hung up on end times stuff and see correlations everywhere. Personally, I think we have millions of years to go.

David quoted Romans 11:25-27. But if you read chapter 11, you will see that a true israelite is one who lives by faith. Thus as Gentiles become Christians they become true Israelites, since they are brothers of Christ who is a true son of Abraham.

So when all the gentiles who will ever be converted to Christianity have been so converted, then will the remaining descendants of Abraham who are to lose their unbelief will lose it. God will soften their hearts so that they will accept Christ as saviour.

I have a coworker (nondenom) however, who believes that literally all physical Israel will be saved by given fulfillment of the promises to Abraham. But I don’t think that the promises to Abraham were made to his physical descendants only because as Christ and Paul said, a true descendant of Abraham has the faith of Abraham.



It’s Catholic teaching that the Jews will be converted before the end.

See Catechism 674.

Pax Christi!

I’ll ask my non-denominational friend - he’s into this stuff.

Side comment: I think we are in the end times.

God bless.

Paul seems to have had a little insight into all of this:

**2 Thessalonians 2 **

The Man of Lawlessness
2 Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our assembling to meet him, we beg you, brethren, 2 not to be quickly shaken in mind or excited, either by spirit or by word, or by letter purporting to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.[a] 3 Let no one deceive you in any way; for that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness**[c] is revealed, the son of perdition, 4 who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. 5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you this? 6 And you know what is restraining him now so that he may be revealed in his time. 7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains it will do so until he is out of the way.[d] 8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, and the Lord Jesus will slay him with the breath of his mouth and destroy him by his appearing and his coming. 9 The coming of the lawless one by the activity of Satan will be with all power and with pretended signs and wonders, 10 and with all wicked deception for those who are to perish, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved. 11 Therefore God sends upon them a strong delusion, to make them believe what is false, 12 so that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.**

Yes, absolutely. Catholic theologians typically interpret post-Resurrection references to “Israel” as the new Israel - the Catholic Church. I was attempting to show how protestants arrive at their ideas apart from Catholic ideology.

Protestants are confused by the idea that the Jews are the “Chosen People.” They think that somehow means “favorite,” and they cannot imagine an end-times scenario in which God’s “favorite” people are excluded.

But “chosen” does not mean “favored.” It means, umm, chosen. Chosen to fulfill some purpose. The Jews were chosen to bring the Savior of mankind into the world. Their task is complete. They were chosen for something that has been fulfilled.

I also believe we are in the end times, too many signs and things taking place to blow it off.

I also think too many people get wrapped up in the verse about NO ONE knowing the day or hour of the second coming, BUT it also gives many warnings and signs to look out for to let us know when he is at the door…they dont seem to acknowledge this!!

Thanks so much for your replies. I’ll look up all resources provided. :thumbsup:

I never heard of the conversion of the Jews before.

Yes. I hope someone can elaborate on this topic in more detail. But thanks for all the inputs, I checked them all but I still can’t come up with a good understanding. Maybe I’m missing where Catechism 674 is based on?

Pax Christi!

Neither has my non-denominational friend. He says that all Jews will return to Israel (probably to escape persecution - anti-Semitism is on the rise in the West) but not convert. Most, my friend believes, will follow the Antichrist.

By the way, just because we don’t know the day or hour doesn’t mean we can’t figure out the general time period. My opinion.

God bless.

Here is St. Thomas Aquinas’ commentary on Romans explaining this.

[quote=St. Thomas]915. Thirdly, he states what he intended.
First, with respect to the fall of particular Jews, when he says: a hardening has come upon Israel, not universally but upon a part: “Blind the heart of this people” (Is 6:10).

Secondly, he predicts the end of this blindness, saying: until the full number of the Gentiles come in to the faith, i.e., not only some Gentile nations as were then converted; but either in all or the greater part the Church would be establishes: “The earth is the Lord’s and all its fullness” (Ps 23:1).

  1. It should be noted that the word, until, can signify the cause of the blindness of the Jews. For God permitted them to be blinded, in order that the full number of the Gentiles come in.

It can also designate the termination, i.e., that the blindness of the Jews will last up to the time when the full number of the Gentiles will come to the faith. With this agrees his next statement, namely, and then, i.e., when the full number of the Gentiles has come in, all Israel will be saved, not some, as now, but universally all: “I will save them by the Lord their God” (Hos 1:7); "He will again have compassion upon us (Mic 7:19).

  1. Then when he says, As it is written, he proves what he had said about the future salvation of the Jews:
    first, he proves this with an authority;
    secondly, with a reason [v. 28; n. 921].

  2. First, therefore, he says: I say that all Israel will be saved, as it is written in Is (59:20), where our text says: “A redeemer will come from Zion and this will be my covenant with them that return to Jacob says the Lord.” But the Apostle uses the Septuagint and touches on three things.

First, the coming of a Savior, when he says: God will come, in human flesh to save us, from Zion, i.e., from the Jewish people who are signified by Zion, the citadel of Jerusalem, a city in Judea. Hence it says in Zech (9:9): " Rejoice greatly, o daughter of Zion! Shout aloud, O daughter of Jerusalem! Lo, our king comes to you…" and in Jn (4:22): “Salvation is from the Jews.”
Or he says that he comes from Zion, not because he was born there, but because his doctrine went from there into the whole world, inasmuch as the apostles received the Holy Spirit in the cenacle in Zion: “Out of Zion shall go forth the law” (Is 2:3).

  1. Secondly, he touches on salvation by Christ offered to the Jews, saying: he will banish ungodliness from Jacob. This could refer to deliverance from punishment: “He will snatch my soul from death” (Ps 115:8). Banish ungodliness from Jacob could refer to deliverance from guilt: “O that deliverance for Israel would come from Zion” (Ps 53:6).

Or both could refer to liberation from guilt, but he says he will take out, because of the few, who now are converted with great difficulty and with, so to speak, a certain violence: “As if a shepherd should get out of the lion’s mouth two legs, or the tip of the ear, so shall the children of Israel be taken out” (Amos 3:12). But he says will banish ungodliness from Jacob to show the ease with which the Jews will be converted at the end of the world: “Who is a God like thee, pardoning iniquity and passing over transgression for the remnant of his inheritance?” (Mic 7:18).

  1. But they are beloved by God for the sake of their forefathers as regards election, because He chose their descendants on account of their forefathers’ grace: “The Lord loved your fathers and chose their descendants after them” (Dt 10:15).

This does not means that the merits established by the fathers were the cause of the eternal election of the descendants, but that God from all eternity chose the fathers and the sons in such a way that the children would obtain salvation on account of the fathers; not as though the merits of the fathers were sufficient for the salvation of the sons, but through an outpouring of divine grace and mercy, the sons would be saved on account of the promises made to the fathers.

  1. Then when he says, For the gifts, he excludes an objection.

For someone might claim that even though the Jews were formerly beloved on account of their forefathers, nevertheless the hostility they exert against the gospel prevents them from being saved in the future. But the Apostle asserts that this is false, saying: The gifts and call o God are irrevocable, i.e., without repentance. As if to say: That God gives something to certain ones or call certain ones is without repentance, because God does not change His mind: "The Lord has sworn and will not change his mind” (Ps 110:4)

  1. Then when he says, Just as you were, he gives the reason for the future salvation of the Jews after their unbelief.
    First, he shows a similarity between the salvation of both people;
    secondly, the cause of this similarity [v. 32; n. 932].

  2. First, therefore, he says: So I say that Israel will be saved, although they are now enemies. For just as you Gentiles once did not believe God: “You were once without God in the world” (Eph 2:12); but now have received mercy because of their unbelief: below (15:9), “The Gentiles are to honor God for his mercy”; “I will have mercy on him who was without mercy” (Hos 2:23). And this was because of their unbelief, which was the occasion of your salvation, as was said above.

So they, i.e., the Jews, now, i.e., in the time of grace, have not believed, namely, Christ: "Why do you not believe me?” (Jn 8:46). And this is what he adds: In order that by the mercy shown to you, i.e., in Christ’s grace, by which you have obtained mercy: “You have saved us according to your mercy” (Tit 3:5). Or they have not believed so that they enter into your mercy. Or they have not believed, which turned out to be the occasion of the mercy shown to you, in order that they also at some time may receive mercy: “The Lord will have compassion on Jacob” (Is 14:1).

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