In dialogue with a very seasoned Evangelical, he has challenged me in a number of area’s, including one of historical precedent in regards to an infallible authority. Here is a snippet of what I’m dealing with.
I wrote: “If God gave us an infallible book with no infallible means of interpreting it, then, logically, He has ultimately failed. I do not believe this is the case.”
He responded by saying that God gave us an infallible book, the Holy Scriptures, to His people in the Old Testament times. But He did NOT give them an infallible authority to interpret them. Does that necessarily imply that God’s purposes with Israel failed?
He talked about how God gave israel teachers but that the Jewish Magesertium was NOT infallible." In fact they made some very serious mistakes (not least to add their traditions to the written Word) and worst of all the Jewish leaders denied God’s Messiah!"
He went on to say that “God achieved His purposes in the Old Testament using an infallible Scripture and fallible teachers. To claim that He COULD NOT apply the same principle in the New Testament church contradicts God’s historical dealings with Israel”
How can I respond to this?