I read this in Fr. de la Potterie’s wonderful work, concerning an exegesis of Lk 1:28, “Hail, full of grace,…” concerning the verb χαριτόω. He is developing here an exegesis of kécharitôménê. He wrote:
The verbs in “óô” are causative; they indicate an action which effects something in the object. Thus, for example, “leukóô,” to whiten; “doulóô,” to reduce to slavery , to enslave; “eleutheróô,” to render free, to free. These verbs, then, effect a change of something in the person or the thing affected.
I’m trying to apply this exegesis to a study of justification in Scripture (non-Catholics are involved), and the Greek for it in James 2:21-26. According to Strong’s interlinear, the word is “δικαιόω - dikaioō” (G5487 (Strong)). My question concerns the accent marks (?) in Strong’s - are they different, or actually equivalent to, the marks in de la Potterie for the “causitive” ending “óô”?
That is, is “óô” the same as “oō”? IOW, is “δικαιόω - dikaioō” an “óô” ending which would make δικαιόω a “causative” verb, which “effects a change of something in the person or the thing affected”?
If so, I could say that the verb δικαιόω - dikaioō - effects a change in the object: the person is made righteous, or just; the person becomes righteous, or just. The person is not merely “accounted” or “titled” or “declared to be as” righteous, but is righteous.
ref: From Mary in the Mystery of the Covenant, Ignace de la Potterie, SJ. Alba House, New York 1992. p. 17-20