Hello, I hope you can help me…
So in Acts 26:14 our Lord says to St. Paul:
14 And when we had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me in the Hebrew language,1 ‘Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads (or pricks).’ 15 And I said, ‘Who are you, Lord?’ And the Lord said, ‘I am Jesus whom you are persecuting. I’ve been question by someone who says to me: "If Jesus really said this, why does Paul put a Greek proverb on Jesus’ lips, as this was not a Hebrew saying, especially since Paul just told us that Jesus was speaking Hebrew? He says that “It is clear that Jesus did not say these words exactly, but that Luke simply used a common turn of phrase found in Greek literature and society as a whole” (e.g. Euripides : “kicks against the pricks” (Euripides, Bacchae.) Aeschylus:. “kicks against the pricks.” (Aeschylus, Agamemnon 1624.)
Am I correct to think that our Lord simply used a phrase that was understood by Paul since Paul spoke Greek and said it in Hebrew? Or that it was perhaps already a Hebrew proverb at the time since it was so widely known in Greek? Or that all rural peoples used a similar phrase, and since Paul was relating the account to King Agrippa a Latin speaking/Greek understanding man, he used the phrase It is hard for you to kick against the goads (or pricks), to make a point he could understand??
How do I argue against this?
"The Greeks and Romans used the phrase “kicking against the goad” as a saying to imply ruinous resistance. And Luke, speaking Greek, was familiar with the proverb. But according to the passage, Jesus supposedly spoke to Paul in Hebrew (Aramaic being his dialect). So did Jesus use an Aramaic proverb that was identical to the Greek proverb or did Luke do a loose translation?
The question is: Why did St. Paul via Luke put a Greek proverb on our Lord’s lips, when he just finished saying he was speaking to him in Hebrew?**
Thoughts please, as I have no way to argue this on my own.
Give me some strength and wisdom to refute this please. :o
Or does St. Luke mention that our Lord spoke in Hebrew so that he would call out that what Jesus said was EQUIVALENT to the Greek proverb in question.
In other words Paul told Luke what our Lord said in Hebrew and Luke said, “oh, you mean like the saying kick against the pricks as the Greeks say?”, and Paul said “yes”.
Could this be it?
I’m confused… Help please.