Jesus Christ is our only 'mediator' as stated by St. Paul

Jesus Christ is our only ‘mediator’ as stated by St. Paul. Non-Catholics like to point out this verse to Catholics (out of context of course), as they mistakenly perceive that we ‘mediate’ through His mother, the Blessed Virgin Mary. Nothing could be further from the truth.

‘Mediator’, as defined by the dictionary, the first meaning, is: ‘One who works to resolve or settle differences by working with all the conflicting parties’.

The ‘conflicting parties’ in this case, are of course, GOD, and mankind. Jesus Christ did indeed act as mediator by suffering and dying for us.

Where is this in St. Paul?

Very early in the Church people started referring to Our Lady as the mediatrix. Through her Christ is able to mediate grace, in fact. I assume that in context it means that only Christ, as true God and Man is able to justify us by mediating between us and the father through his crucifixion and resurrection.

Peace.

Grace doesn’t arise from Mary … it only passes thru her. She is a chosen vessel of Christ, to serve him and his elect.

All grace is from the domain of Christ …

BRB1,
The last sentence, we can all agree on.

The part about the Grace passing through the Blessed Virgin - I think that can often make a Protestant’s head spin.:whacky::hypno: :stuck_out_tongue:
Maybe you could explain this more, for those of us you want to understand, and not just condemn. :wink:

Jon

1Tim 2:5

Thanks. As I suspected, context is everything. Paul is saying that only Christ is able to mediate strictly speaking between man and God; but Mary is a mediatrix of grace insofar as she is 1) the mother of God, from whom all grace flows, and 2) she is the most perfect intercessor, because she was saved from original sin and is yet still fully human. Again, she is not God and thus hasn’t authority in herself to mediate grace, but through her grace is mediated.

For notes on Mary as the mediatrix see especially Redemptoris Mater JPII

This is a tradition of the Church, but it is not yet dogma; although a petition has been sent to the Holy Father for this reason.

Is there any SS that would specifically forbid Mary from serving in such a role ?
Mary is not the origin of the grace, just one means of conveying it to mankind.

Don’t Lutherans believe that the Saints play an active ‘support role’ in the spiritual battle ?

Greetings and blessings Jon,

One simple way of putting it is that if Jesus came to us through Mary, then we can go to Jesus through Mary also!

Her will is God’s will “behold the handmaid of the lord, be it done unto me according to thy word”. She prays for us to Jesus frm whom all grace comes! We don’t HAVE to pray through her but it is strongly recommended and thousands of saints have done it also. Some saints attribute thier faith to her because she has leD them to her son! She is a beneficiary of God’s grace and all she wants is to bring us to that also! Her son!

She was sinless, faultless without sin! Wouldn’t you want a) Jesus Mother to pray for you b) someone who is without sin to pray for you? I know i would!

There are times in the gospel that she intercedes for someone e.g at the marriage at cana - miracle of the wine. Jesus even responded “women my hour has not yet come”, but in the end he fulfilled his mother’s request!

Glory to Jesus Christ!

Hi Jessi,

Please explain what Mediatrix of all graces means to you.

Is it hyperbole, as in “the Mekong is the Mother of Waters” or “My wife has the most beautiful eyes!” ? Is it intended as a compliment about Mary, as a praise?

Or is it a function…does it mean every type of grace passes through her but not necessarily every bit of grace? … or does it mean the sum total of all grace passes through her in some active fashion, or what else exactly? :shrug:

What happened before she died…was there no grace or was she doing this all along?

Does it mean that Mary has the ability to control grace or to block grace? Or does it mean she acts like a conduit of grace with nothing to say about the outcome?

What about the other saints and the angels, do they share in this mediation or is it unique?

Please pardon me, but I cannot clearly see the point of such an acclamation.

I believe that it is improper to stat “it is **not yet **dogma” as it presupposes that it will someday be.

No one, not even a Pope, can know that, not even if he has a definite intention to pronounce it.

Michael

We, as Protestants, see Mary as the mother of Christ (the Son of Man and the Son of the Lord God Almighty). We do not see Mary as the mother of God. Jesus was begotten as the Lord of Hosts, before the world was, without a mother. In Acts, it is written, “This same Jesus that you have crucified, I have made both Lord and Christ.” In Isaiah 44:6, we find that “God” consists of The Lord God Almighty and Jesus (as Lord of Hosts and Lamb).

The N/T quotes Christ as saying, that He (alone), is the way, the truth and the life…the door…the chastiser…the mediator (along with the Holy Ghost…the spirit [of] truth). There is no quote (by Christ/God) in the Bible, that gives Mary any special ‘powers’ in terms of mediation (nor any other human being). In order for God to provide the Son of Man (Lamb), He had to choose ‘a’ woman. He chose Mary. It is as simple as that.

It is written, that we do not even know how to pray. It is NOT written, ‘except for Mary’. Our prayers are just as powerful as hers (or anyone else’s prayers), if we are right with God, and our prayers are righteous.

God has chosen people to do His work, as He has seen fit, since the beginning of the creation of Adam & Eve. Mary is simply one of these chosen people, to do a certain ‘job’ (albeit, a very honourable & precious ‘job’). The purpose of her ‘job’, was not to glorify Mary, herself, but to glorify the Lord God Almighty and HIs only begotten Son (ie. “GOD”), and provide us with a source for redemption. :slight_smile:

=Thorwald;5372485]We, as Protestants, see Mary as the mother of Christ (the Son of Man and the Son of the Lord God Almighty). **We do not see Mary as the mother of God. **Jesus was begotten as the Lord of Hosts, before the world was, without a mother. In Acts, it is written, “This same Jesus that you have crucified, I have made both Lord and Christ.” In Isaiah 44:6, we find that “God” consists of The Lord God Almighty and Jesus (as Lord of Hosts and Lamb).

Speak for yourself. :wink:

24] On account of this personal union and communion of the natures, Mary, the most blessed Virgin, bore not a mere man, but, as the angel [Gabriel] testifies, such a man as is truly the Son of the most high God, who showed His divine majesty even in His mother’s womb, inasmuch as He was born of a virgin, with her virginity inviolate. Therefore **she is truly the mother of God, and nevertheless remained a virgin. **

bookofconcord.org/sd-person.php

Jon

The Word was God. He was a spiritual being (had divine nature) and He was eternally begotten before the world began.

John 1:1 “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”

Jesus existed before Abraham, He says He is I AM. I AM is God.

Exodus 3:14 "And God said to Moses, “I AM WHO I AM.” And He said, “Thus you shall say to the children of Israel, ‘I AM has sent me to you.’”

John 8:58 "Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.”

The Word became flesh.

John 1:14 “And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.”

Mary, a human, is the Mother of Jesus the Word Incarnate and so Jesus now has both a divine nature and a human nature. Jesus is God, and Mary is Jesus’ Mother, therefore Mary is the Mother of God. She is Mother of God the Son only, of course. She is not the Mother of God the Father and she is not the Mother of God the Holy Spirit.

Jesus is the one Mediator between God and Man because He is both God and Man. Jesus mediated our status from enemy of God due to Adam’s sin to friend of God by His offering of Himself as the perfect sacrifice on the cross to atone for Adam’s sin. [Romans 5]

Thanks to both of you for your replies.

The answer to the first question is no, of course. To the last one, yes, in the sense that they are always praying for the Church Militant.
To the middle, which I bolded, could it not be said that all of us who are regenerate are (should be) a means of conveying His grace? If so, is this the same, or do you mean it in a different way for the Blessed Virgin?

Originally Posted by Louie1983:
One simple way of putting it is that if Jesus came to us through Mary, then we can go to Jesus through Mary also!

Her will is God’s will “behold the handmaid of the lord, be it done unto me according to thy word”. She prays for us to Jesus frm whom all grace comes! We don’t HAVE to pray through her but it is strongly recommended and thousands of saints have done it also. Some saints attribute thier faith to her because she has leD them to her son! She is a beneficiary of God’s grace and all she wants is to bring us to that also! Her son!

She was sinless, faultless without sin! Wouldn’t you want a) Jesus Mother to pray for you b) someone who is without sin to pray for you? I know i would!

There are times in the gospel that she intercedes for someone e.g at the marriage at cana - miracle of the wine. Jesus even responded “women my hour has not yet come”, but in the end he fulfilled his mother’s request!

Does this answer my question above? :slight_smile: Is her sinlessness something that makes her a better conveyor of grace than, say, you or me, or my pastor or your priest?

Jon

I am aware of all of the scripture that you have so nicely referenced (above). Here is the question, “If there was no need for a “Christ saviour”, where would that leave your ‘understanding of God’ ?” If there would have been no need for a Lamb, there would have been no need for a ‘Mary’. Would Jesus not have still existed, as Lord of Hosts (the only begotten Son of God)? :slight_smile:

Yes. The more sinless a person is, the more sanctifying graces he/she possesses. All righteous persons have sanctifying grace.

Once you have supernatural life, once sanctifying grace is in your soul, you can increase it by every supernaturally good action you do. A righteous person’s prayers produce results. There is no person more righteous than a person who has not ever sinned.

James 5:16 “Confess your trespasses to one another, and pray for one another, that you may be healed. The effective, fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much.”

1 Peter 3:12 "For the eyes of the LORD are on the righteous,
And His ears are open to their prayers;
But the face of the LORD is against those who do evil.”

Mary gave us Jesus by her consent to the Will of God. No greater gift for man could ever be possible; she gave us the gift of the Savior for our redemption. Mary continues to be a conduit of God’s graces because it is God’s Will, but all of her graces come from God. We can do nothing apart from God’s grace.

John 15:5 “I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me you can do nothing.”

You talk as if sinlessness is a matter of degrees. The bible says Romans 3:23For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Everyone is a sinner. By the way this includes Mary. Romans 8:3For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:

Once you have supernatural life, once sanctifying grace is in your soul, you can increase it by every supernaturally good action you do. A righteous person’s prayers produce results. There is no person more righteous than a person who has not ever sinned.

What is supernatural life and what is a supernaturally good action? Hypothetically I suppose this is true, but Romans 3:23 makes the point moot.

James 5:16 “Confess your trespasses to one another, and pray for one another, that you may be healed. The effective, fervent prayer of a righteous man avails much.”

1 Peter 3:12 "For the eyes of the LORD are on the righteous,
And His ears are open to their prayers;
But the face of the LORD is against those who do evil.”

The righteousness talked about here is the righteousness we take on through faith in Jesus Christ
Isaiah 64:6 But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away.
Jeremiah 23:6 In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS.

Mary gave us Jesus by her consent to the Will of GodNo greater gift for man could ever be possible; she gave us the gift of the Savior for our redemption. Mary continues to be a conduit of God’s graces because it is God’s Will, but all of her graces come from God. We can do nothing apart from God’s grace.

John 15:5 “I am the vine, you are the branches. He who abides in Me, and I in him, bears much fruit; for without Me you can do nothing.”

Mary didn’t give us Jesus. God did. Mary was just the vehicle by which He entered the world, but then so were all His ancesters up to and including Adam. She is a conduit for God’s grace only in so far as she she was His mother. She has nothing to do with the dispensation of God’s grace. John3:16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

I suggest you read the five tomes of St. Cyril of Alexandria against Nestorius. Nestorius refused to call Mary Theotokos or mother of God because ultimately he did not believe in a unity of the natures of Christ. Nestorius was willing to call Mary the mother of Christ our God but not mother of God. He continually seperates the words of the Gospels so that some of them refer to ‘Christ the man’ and others refer to the Word of God. Cyril argued that God the Word became man and made the flesh His own even to the point that it is said that God suffered, was crucified and ultimately God died (in His humanity). All the words of the Gospels are applied to God the Word who became man. There is an absolute unity of Christ. Nestorius accuses Cyril of introducing passibility into the divine nature but Cyril continually denies this.

I would also refer you to the words of Elizabeth to Mary in Luke1 where she calls her ‘mother of my Lord’. You have three options here. First you could deny the divinity of Christ which I am sure you do not do. Second you could speak as Nestorius did in terms of divisions and say that Lord applies to the humanity and not to the divinity. This is ultimately problematic because you are denying the hypostatic union and Christ becomes simply a God-inspired man. Or you can speak as Cyril and the Catholic tradition along with the Eastern Orthodox, Anglicans and the Lutherans as Jon showed and speak of the unity of Christ and admit that she is the mother of God/Theotokos.

An antique argument required antique answer hehehe:

That verse in ROM. 3:23 refers to the general law everyone have sinned, but in every law there’s and exception…! And Mary is one of them for the profound reason that Mary will craddle in her womb Jesus.

In the Old Testament we can notice the insistence of God to keep he womb of the mother of his chosen ones most pure and perfect: Judges13:3-4, Judges 13:7, Judges 13-14.

In the New Testament it is angel Gabriel from heaven reveal it to Mary.
Lk 1:28 " Mary was greeted by the angel “full grace” “highgly favored one” in greek the original word is “CHARITO” it indicates that Mary was exceptionaly “highly favored”. The word “CHARITOO” is used only twice in Lk 1:28 and Eph 1:6 for Christ’s grace to us after redemtion. It means the grace given to us after the death of Jesus was already given in advance to Mary, before the birth of Jesus “Preventive Redemtion”. In fact there are other people whom God gave this privilege Jeremiah the prophet (JER. 1:5). :thumbsup:

:thumbsup:

Was Jesus God, Was Mary the Mother of God, so if Jesus is God and Mary is the Mother of God then Jesus is the Mother of God.GOD IS THE MOTHER OF JESUS WHO IS GOD.

Rick I think you are a little confused :Mary gave birth to the human nature of Jesus only.
Mothers do not give birth to natures alone, but to persons who possess a nature. Mary gave birth to the complete person. Now, is Jesus Christ a divine person, or is he a human person?
He could not be both, as that would make Him to be two persons.

*Mary could not be the Mother of GOD.
Well, because you made this statement, you now have only two options. Either Jesus Christ is not GOD, or He had another mother other than Mary. Which option will you choose?

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