Jesus healing the blind- one or two or both?


Five specific instances of Jesus healing the blind are given in the Bible .(1) Mat9:27-31. (2)Mat20:29-34. (3)Mar10:46-52. (4)L18:35-43 and (5) J 9:1-7.Do all these refers to the same incident?
In the first case, two blind men follow Jesus crying out,'Have mercy on us son of David 'and Jesus heals them later at a house after they answered his question( Do you believe I can do this ?)that they believe that Jesus can do it.In the second case two man crying out the same thing,and Jesus heals them on the spot.Both appear to be the same incident in which case it is not clear why the same writer tells this again.However the place where they are healed is different.One at a house a bit later and another on the way immediately after they are spotted.

In the third case it was a man by name Bartimeus .He cries out the same,but the question Jesus asked was a little different(What you wanted me to do?).He is healed instantly.The fourth case is similar to this except that the name of the blind person is not mentioned.Obviously the third and fourth case refers to the same incident narrated by two different writers.

The fifth case appears to be clearly a different one.Here neither the blind man cries out,nor Jesus questions him.Here the blind man is not healed on the spot but healed after he goes and wash in Siloe pool.It appears Jesus did not want to treat him at par with the other blind men ,as he neither proclaims Jesus as the son of David nor confirms his belief on the power of Jesus.
Any body can enlighten about these to help reveal our Lord’s intention ?


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