John 10:35 - "gods"

RSV: “If he called them gods to whom the word of God came…”

What does this mean ? My mormon friends say that is shows that we can all become “gods” one day. I do not believe the sentance structure supports this. But what does it mean then ? Why are people call “gods”.

Any and all help welcomed.

God Bless,

Hal.

Jesus is speaking to the Jews, who believe in God. He quotes Psalm 82:6 “I said, you are gods”. Notice gods is not capitalized. In this psalm and passage in John, the ‘gods’ are referring to judges & princes, not divine God.

Jesus then immediately proclaims his divinity, asking then if you can be called gods as judges, why can’t I be called God as the Son of the Father.

Psalm 82:6 is a prayer to Yahweh to punish the corrupt leaders of Israel (called “gods” because of the divine authority they wield), who were charged with teaching and enforcing the divine Law. Also, Jesus reasons that if sinful authorities are given a divine title because of their duties, how much more is he entitled to it. (because He is guiltless and speaks the words of God)

But because I speak the truth, you do not believe me. Can any of you charge me with sin? If I am telling the truth, why do you not believe me? Whoever belongs to God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not listen, because you do not belong to God." (Jn 8:45-47)

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