I would appreciate some help from anyone knowledgeable in Greek regarding the RSV translation (and other Protestant translations) for John 2:4
And Jesus said to her, “O woman, what have you to do with me?..”
…, “Woman, how does your concern affect me? …”
… "Woman, what is that to me and to thee?..
(According to my interlinear Greek/English text, this Douay version is the most literal translation.)[/INDENT][/INDENT]
My question: Is there any legitimate explanation/justification for the Protestant translation?
The Protestant translations certainly give the sense of Jesus putting down Mary.
Thanks for any help.