John 5:7 and Mark 16:9-20


I have heard that these passages are not reliable and not in the earliest transcripts, and are thought to be later editions. I was curious if anyone had any knowledge on this they would care to share. :slight_smile:


It would be helpful to actually post the verses, so we could all see the same translation. :slight_smile:


“7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” (KJV)

"9 Now when he rose early on the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Mag′dalene, from whom he had cast out seven demons. 10 She went out and told those who had been with him, as they mourned and wept. 11 But when they heard that he was alive and had been seen by her, they would not believe it.

Jesus Appears to Two Disciples
12 After this he appeared in another form to two of them, as they were walking into the country. 13 And they went back and told the rest, but they did not believe them.

Jesus Commissions the Disciples
14 Afterward he appeared to the eleven themselves as they sat at table; and he upbraided them for their unbelief and hardness of heart, because they had not believed those who saw him after he had risen. 15 And he said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to the whole creation. 16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned. 17 And these signs will accompany those who believe: in my name they will cast out demons; they will speak in new tongues; 18 they will pick up serpents, and if they drink any deadly thing, it will not hurt them; they will lay their hands on the sick, and they will recover.”

The Ascension of Jesus
19 So then the Lord Jesus, after he had spoken to them, was taken up into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God. 20 And they went forth and preached everywhere, while the Lord worked with them and confirmed the message by the signs that attended it. Amen.[a]" (RSV)


According to the Ignatius Study Bible, regarding the “Johannine Comma,” it was declared in 1927 that Catholic scholarship is not bound to accept that part of John’s letter, and it is absent from the newest Vulgate.

The longer ending to Mark is considered canon and was at least in existence by the mid-second century at the latest.


Re the end of Mark, most bibles I think say in the footnotes that those last verses are not in the earliest Greek transcripts we have.
Many scholars believe Mark originally ended at 16:8, I think it is?
The longer ending started appearing in the early 2nd Century, I’ve read.

Re the John line…apparently that also is not in any of the original Greek transcripts manuscripts.
When Erasamus first translated a new Greek text in the middle ages, he did not include that quote because he could not find it in any of the Greek manuscripts. Not until his third edition in 1522 did he add that line after much pressure from others, but he included a note saying saying the line had been deliberately doctored.
Bruce Metzger’s “Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament” is one of many writings that talk about this.
The line wasn’t in any of Luther’s German translations and both the Tyndale and Coverdale bibles note that the origin of the line is unreliable.

But…methinks you already know all this…


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