I’ve often see Calvinists use John 6:44 to support reformed theology:
Now, I have three questions about this:
- According to the Greek grammar, who is the second “him” that will be raised on the last day? The ones whom the Father draws, or the ones who come to Christ?
- Regardless of how 1) is answered, how are we to reconcile this with the idea that somebody can lose their salvation?
- If the answer to 1) is that those whom the Father draws will be raised up on the last day, how is this not reformed theology?