Hi guys, I have been looking at biblical arguments for the Catholic view of the Eucharist. Besides the "verses of institution" ( Mathew, Mark and Luke and 1 Corinthians 11) every discussion quickly points to John 6. So I decided to look at the context a little and reading the whole chapter this is what I got:
In the first 50 verses he seems to be using a metaphor. I am the True bread of heaven, whoever believes in me shall have life. However the rest of the chapter he seems to be speaking literally and the people around him including the 12, understand him literally and are deeply offended by it. His statements in verses 61-65 do not make the previous 10 verses sound figurative, to me they make them sound even more literal. Also in verse 4. It says the Jewish passover is near. Which I find of note given the Lord Supper is the passover meal.
So I'm kind of left unconvinced... He is so clearly speaking in metaphor in the first part of the chapter, how can I be certain he isn't in the rest of it? ... besides the obvious... that it doesn't sound metaphorical at all.
Is there anything else about this text, or other texts of scriptures that make it more clear that John 6 is meant to be applied to the Eucharist and taken Literal?
Feel free to link me to resources and/or tell me to "lurk more".