[quote="sirach2v4, post:2, topic:313231"]
is it possible that you have already looked at quick-look-up sources, such as this
Look at the comments on the talk page of the Wikipedia article that is copied from.
"Please provide context for the use of this term. Jews certainly do not use it, while Sabbatarians do. Any sources, perhaps? JFW | T@lk 22:29, 28 November 2005 (UTC)"
"I think we should mention that the term is not in use by Jews. High Holidays only recently became used by Jews, but High Sabbath never caught on. Valley2city 16:49, 12 October 2006 (UTC)"
After looking at the "references," the article looks dubious.
[quote="patrick457, post:3, topic:313231"]
It's pretty much well known that there is a slight difference between the chronology of John and the Synoptics in this regard: the Synoptics seem to portray Jesus as being executed on Passover itself, of the 15th of Nisan (since the Jewish day is reckoned to begin at sundown, the Last Supper held during the night of Nisan 14 is thus a Passover meal), while John seems to have Jesus die during the 14th (in 18:28 the Jewish leaders are said to have not yet eaten the Passover meal, and in 19:14 John notes that it was "the Preparation of the Passover" - John's is a highly symbolic choice of dating, since here Jesus dies the same time as the Passover lambs are being slaughtered). All four agree, however, that Jesus died before a Sabbath.
There should not be any difference at all. What gain in symbolism would be so great in John's eyes that it would be worth distorting the chronology by a single day? If the symbolism worked so much better having Jesus died a day earlier, then it should have just happened in reality that Jesus died a day earlier. There is also the problem of explaining how such a massive contradiction could exist in the word of God who does not lie. For your two Bible verses, I would suggest that John 18:28 refers not to the Passover Supper but the peace offering that was to be consumed in the temple that same morning and that John 19:14 refers simply to the Preparation (i.e. Friday) of the Passover octave rather than the Passover Supper. Nor do I see any reason for the insistence that Jesus died at the same hour as the Passover lambs on Nisan 14. Jesus is not just another Passover lamb. Since the Passover lambs in general look forward to Jesus' sacrifice, then the lambs sacrificed on the 14th look forward to his crucifixion on the 15th.
[quote="po18guy, post:4, topic:313231"]
Some pretend, by these expressions, to prove that Friday, the year Christ suffered, was not the first and great day of the feast of Azyms, but only the day of preparation, and that on Friday night the Jews eat the paschal lamb, and not the night before, or Thursday night, as Christ had done with his disciples. But according to the common exposition, Friday is here called the day of preparation, for the great and solemn sabbath, which happened in the paschal week. See Tillemont on the 5th passage out of John, p. 698, section 11. and 12. (Witham)
I have viewed the Haydock Commentary on this verse. I'm assuming that what Witham is citing is Tillemont's Mémoires pour servir à l'histoire ecclésiastique des six premiers siècles. I haven't been able able to find an English copy.
[quote="Cyberseeker, post:5, topic:313231"]
Thursday/Friday the fifteenth of Nisan. It looked like this: (times approx)
*]6 pm Day began.
*]9 pm Passover meal.
*]12 pm Jesus arrested.
*]6 am Judgement passed.
*]9 am Jesus crucified.
*]12 am Great darkness.
*]3 pm Jesus dies.
*]6 pm Day ended.
There is no contradiction between St John and the synoptics. As for the "high Sabbath" it must have been so called because it coincided with the Passover feast days.
Yes, I think that must be the correct solution. What I am looking for is something scholarly that treats the term "high day." Is "high day" a technical term or does it just mean that this Sabbath was important (because, as you say, it fell during a festival week)?