I have read Louis de Monfort and understand the context of “co-redemptrix”.
I was told by a nonCatholic that JP2 also referenced this in Salvifici Doloris. After a quick search, I didn’t find it.
So, a few questions to help clarify:
- Did JP2 reference Mary as co-redemptrix, and if so, did he do so ex cathedra? It seems not.
-Did I miss it in Salvifici Doloris? Is there a related statement there made ex cathedra?
I also found the following:
By 1998 it was doubtful the Vatican was going to consider new Marian dogmas. The papal spokesman stated “This is not under study by the Holy Father nor by any Vatican congregation or commission”. A leading Mariologist stated the petition was “theologically inadequate, historically a mistake, pastorally imprudent and ecumenically unacceptable”. Pope John Paul II cautioned against “all false exaggeration”, his teaching and devotion to Mary has strictly been “exalting Mary as the first among believers but concentrating all faith on the Triune God and giving primacy to Christ.” When asked in an interview in 2000 whether the Church would go along with the desire to solemnly define Mary as Co-Redemptrix, then-Cardinal Ratzinger (later Pope Benedict XVI) responded that,
the formula “Co-redemptrix” departs to too great an extent from the language of Scripture and of the Fathers and therefore gives rise to misunderstandings…Everything comes from Him [Christ], as the Letter to the Ephesians and the Letter to the Colossians, in particular, tell us; Mary, too, is everything she is through Him. The word “Co-redemptrix” would obscure this origin. A correct intention being expressed in the wrong way.