Since the Last Supper was the first Mass, when Jesus ate the bread, was he eating Himself? Just curious…
We don’t know for sure. But likely. Aquinas was of the opinion yes.
We can say that if he partook of consecrated bread then yes he received his own Body.
Remember, too, that in order for the sacrifice to be complete, the priest (old and new covenant) had to consume his portion. Jesus is priest and sacrificial victim, thus, as the priest, he consumed his portion of the sacrifice, which was Himself.
I think, though, that it is helpful to note that to “complete” the sacrifice seems to mean (in this context) an action which belongs to the integrity (i.e. the fullness) of the sacrifice and not necessarily to it’s existence as a sacrifice.
In other words, eating the sacrifice is not strictly necessary in order for it to be the sacrifice, although it is integral to it.
However, we should also note that when it comes to the priest’s communion he is also under a Divine command to “take and eat” (as opposed to the lay faithful who are not under such a command). Therefore the priest’s Holy Communion cannot be legitimately, licitly, or lightly dispensed with. BUT, if for some reason a priest cannot communicate, and no other priest is available (unlikely) we would still say, I think, that the *sacrficial action *has occurred.
So, although there are good reasons to think that Christ did partake, I don’t think that it was strictly necessary – i.e. I don’t think that he must have in order for the Last Supper to have been a true sacrifice.