Leavened or not

According to Eastern Orthodoxy (chime in if your out there), the original greek text implies a leavened host. Why would Jewish men in rememberence of the passover meal (the feast of unleavened bread) use a leavened host? Also what in the greek text could prove or disprove this?

I’m not Eastern Orthodox or Eastern Catholic, but I thought I should mention that there is some question as to whether or not the Passover celebrated by Jesus and His Apostles was a “proper” Passover; that is, whether it was celebrated early or not. (St. John’s Gospel makes it clear that the Pharisees had not yet eaten the Passover when Jesus was on trial.)

So it is possible that there was leavened bread used at the Last Supper. But there would have been unleavened bread used in Emmaus on the following Sunday. So those two scenarios would make both leavened and unleavened bread suitable for use.

According to Eastern Orthodoxy (and every other religious group on the planet), everything in tradition, scripture, and history implies support of whatever they happen to do, believe, or teach.

You know, I seem to remember reading somewhere, though I can’t recall where at the moment, that Galileans were allowed to celebrate the Passover the night before. I’ll dig through all my books and documents and see if I can find the source.

Isn’t the more relevant question what the Catholic Church practices? Why would what Jewish men used at the Passover determine what Catholics use at Mass?

Francis X. Weiser, who wrote Handbook of Christian Feasts & Customs, once told me that the Passover had to be eaten indoors. With all the visitors to Jerusalem this required that the visitors ate it indoors one night and the residents ate itindoors the next.

Elsewhere I have read that the Essenes celebrated Passover a day or so earlier than the Temple Jews, and that the upper room was in the Essene quarter of Jerusalem.

Still another source stated that traditionalists held to the day of the full moon for Passover, while the more liberal groups transferred it to the following weekend. [Transferring holydays to the Sabbath sounds familiar ;)]

Don’t know if any of these are valid.

I have to question the point of this thread. First the Church has already said that leavened bread is valid matter. It is the norm for some Eastern Churches both Orthodox and Catholic. Further, even the Roman Catholic Church can use leavened bread for Communion if a case of necessity arises (ie. you’re on a cruise ship in the middle of the ocean with a priest and its a Sunday and ran out of unleavened bread last week).

Questioning the type of bread used at the last supper only leads to the follow-up question of:
a. if its unleavened, then is leavened bread invalid?
Or
b. if its leavened, then is unleavened bread invalid?

Why create disunity where there is no problem today? The Church in her wisdom has already made a call on the matter. No need for us to speculate otherwise.

Thank you!

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