So I am reading an article for philosophy class and the author presents a reason for not interpreting Holy Books for moral truth. The author cites Leviticus’ prohibition of homosexuality and then points out what else the Book allows (probably a red herring, eh?).
For instance, Leviticus 25:44 to 46
"Slaves, male and female, you may indeed possess, provided you buy them from among the neighboring nations.
You may also buy them from among the aliens who reside with you and from their children who are born and reared in your land. Such slaves you may own as** chattels**,
and leave to your sons as their hereditary property, making them perpetual slaves. But you shall not lord it harshly over any of the Israelites, your kinsmen.
How do you defend such biblical statements such as this among others like Leviticus 21:9?
Thank you in advance,