Hi. I’m trying to refute someone’s claim (who I believe isn’t even christian) that when Leviticus 17:11-14 says: “for the life of a creature is in the blood”, it clearly means that what is says and that Jews believed it as well. Further more, he applies the claim to his argument that it doesn’t make sense for Christians to believe that life is created at conception and that according to this an embryo clearly isn’t alive before it has blood and thus abortion before that shouldn’t be problematic for Christians.
Now, I know this is wrong. The claim seemed from from the beginning, but when he applied it to abortion it became obvious. I’m just not sure how to prove him that he is wrong. I said that these were dietary laws that were there so that Jews could prepare themselves for the coming of the Messiah, whose blood we are now to drink to have life. To this he simply repeats the quote, saying that the verse in Leviticus clearly says that life in in the blood.
So, what should be my response?
Thank you very much beforehand!