Lost in Translation?

Intuitively I understand there are words and phrases which simply do not translate from language to language, especially over the ages. From an evangelical perspective, how do you make “stiff necked” Bible Believing Protestants understand the concept behind lost in translation.

I am stuck trying to understand myself how someone can truly believe the 1611 KJB is the only “authorized” word of God. I have had people of this branch of Protestantism point out to me how single words in the different versions (ASV, NABRE, Douai-Rheims, etc.) are wrong which proves the 1611 version is the only accurate version and the true Word of God. Does this mean, someone from China who only speaks a dialect of Mandarin must learn 16th Century English in order to get the true Word? When asked this question, the naive typically talk about authorized translations of the 1611 into different languages… but, they just do not seem to be able to grasp the technicalities behind a translation which would disprove their theory of the 1611 version as the only version.

So… I am looking for tips, examples, etc. to help someone understand the way translations are made to help chink through the ignorant armor of the 1611 only camp. The best I have been able to do so far is ask them how they would explain an airplane to someone in the middle of the Congo in 1920… a word which has no equivalent or even a concept in a language.

Thoughts?

Perhaps you might want to ask them why they deny the infallibility of the Pope and the Church but they accept the infallibility of “authorized translators”?

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