My husband and I are trying to conceive our first child. So far, we have not been successful and we are now considering fertility testing. I know that my husband will need to have his sperm tested, so I searched on the "Ask an Apologist" thread and found this related paragraph.
Interestingly enough, though, the answer to the question, "Can contraceptive devices EVER be used licitly?" is "Yes." If the contraceptive device is not being used as contraception, it may well be perfectly fine to use it. One example of this would be the perforated condom prescribed to couples undergoing licit fertility treatments so that a sperm count may be done. The condom captures some sperm for testing purposes while allowing other sperm to pass through, which means that neither the procreative or unitive aspects of the marital act are frustrated.
Has anyone used this method? Is it something you need to ask for or would an OB/GYN suggest it? Any information you might have would be very much appreciated. :)