The examples I am about to give, I got from the “Ask an Apologist” thread.
In one reply, it was said that one could not marry a person who is known to be sterile because the marriage would not be open to life. Therefore, all sterile people would have to lead a celibate life and never marry.
In another reply, it was said that if one of a married couple suddenly became sterile, it was O.K. to continue to have sex and stay married. In the case of a woman being sterile, her husband could still have sex with her, even when both know the possibility of child bearing is zero.
I understand why the married couple would be allowed to stay married. My question is why can’t a sterile person marry and have relations with his/her spouse if a sterile couple can continue to have relations? Make sense?
I’ve heard many people on this site say that child bearing is not the only reason for marriage. The above examples seem contrary to this. I can’t figure it out. If celibacy and NFP are O.K. for “spacing” or health reasons, then why not for a person who is sterile through no fault of their own? Why the double standard?