Married men who renounce their marriages to be priests

Cardinal Stickler’s A Case for Clerical Celibacy notes that historically a married man could renounce his marriage and its privileges (remain 100% continent and separate from his wife) in order to enter the major orders. Is this still possible today? And how does one go about it?

The 1917 Code of Canon Law (canons 990-991) required a dispensation from the Holy See for married men to enter major orders (cf. pg. 151 {PDF pg. 5} fn. 13 and pg. 160-61 {PDF pg. 14-15} fn. 42-43 and accompanying text of canon lawyer Ed Peter’s 49 (2010) 110-116Chicago Studies). Before the 1917 Code, only a wife’s consent in the presence of the bishop was needed.

And if married men can become deacons with the wife’s consent under the 1983 Code, are they also able to become priests (enter major orders) under the '83 Code?

We usually hear about married convert priests. Must they, too, technically renounce their marriage and its privileges, i.e., remain 100% continent and separate from their wife? This doesn’t appear to happen (cf. this blog).

[BIBLEDRB]Matthew 19:29[/BIBLEDRB]
Is it possible for a married Catholic man today to do this?

Thanks, and happy Easter!

Only if the wife wants to consecrate too.

At least the consent of the wife is required. And I imagine it’d need to be very good, very clear consent, not just bringing a signed paper. Children would need to be taken care of as well. A man with underaged children would be very unlikely to be ordained.

May the joy and happiness around you today and always.

Which canon of Canon Law mandates this?

The example I provided is of an Eastern Orthodox convert to the Byzantine Catholic rite. Historically, eastern rite married clergy were allowed to cohabitate with their wives, but they still were required to remain 100% continent (at least within a certain amount of time of exercising priestly functions at the altar). I wonder what the current Eastern Roman Catholic Code of Canon Law says about this.

As the canon lawyer Ed Peters’s articles show, there appears to be a lot of ambiguity regarding this issue.

Are you referring to Council of Trullo canon 48.?

Mr. Peters has been refuted, but he feels this is only an opinion. The Church’s actions and practices show that married men ordained to the diaconate are not held to the rule of celibacy if they are married; thus eliminates the requirement of perfect and perpetual continence.

I do not claim to know anything of married men renouncing their marriage to be ordained.

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