Part of the rite reads:
“Will you accept children lovingly from God, and bring them up according to the law of Christ and his Church?”
To which each party must answer in the affirmative.
Now unless I’m missing something, the rite clearly indicates that when entering into a marriage, both husband and wife MUST be open to life. And to be open to life one MUST have sex, correct? Therefore, one MUST be open to having sex when entering into a marriage.
You may be right that they can decide not to consummate the marriage after the fact, but the marriage is clearly invalid if (as proposed by many here) Mary and Joseph were NOT open to life when they were married.
My first thought whenever this question comes up, and it comes up often, is WHY does this matter? Mary and Joseph were not Catholics. They were Jews. Who cares?
I do not understand how, as a Catholic, you can write off Jewish tradition so easily. The prophets were Jews. Jesus was a Jew. We have received the ten commandments and much of our tradition from the Jews. The Jews were God’s chosen people.
Therefore, I do not see how it is irrelevant and frankly, I would find it rather odd if God’s view of marriage has changed so much since the time of the Jews. Please note that if the alleged views are correct that this is not a minor change at all. We are talking about open to life vs. not open to life. Big difference.
Who cares if it was valid or not? It has NO bearing at all on the sacrament of marriage or Church teaching.
They are the mother and the father of our Lord and a model for all Christian couples.
The purpose of their marriage was unique in all of history: guardianship of the Christ child. They entered into a legal arrangement for that guardianship.
How do you figure? Were they not married before God impregnated Mary? That would mean they retroactively entered into that arrangement, which needless to say makes no sense.