Hi all, this is my 1st post so here goes…,
I am a practicing Anglican who am finding myself increasingly drawn to the RCC. I have been attending RCIA at my local parish for 4 yrs now and despite all the ups and downs of considering conversion (and prayer!), I felt that the answer I’d been waiting for was revealed to me at Mass on 2nd sunday of Easter. As a result, I intend to 'cross the Tiber next Easter.
My wife is also Anglican and will remain so, but she is of the opinion that ‘I have to do what is right for me’, in fact, as a result of this process, we have both deepened our faith and discipleship, and of course, will continue to encourage that although our paths might differ slightly!
I have read a lot of Scott Hahn’s books, (which I really like), and am currently his book, ‘Hail Holy Queen’. about the virgin Mary from a biblical perspective.
As a result, I understand her role now ; as our mother/mother of God/Queen mother/the new Eve and ark of the New Covenant, (plus I also like praying the Holy Rosary).
However…, I am stuck on an argument Scott puts forward in Ch2… he relates the point where hanging on the cross Jesus calls his mother ‘woman’, to Gen 2:23 where 'woman is the name Adam gives to Eve. He then states that, “Jesus, then, is addressing Mary as Eve to the New Adam”.
I get this point as it stands, but, does not Christ call the ’ woman at the well ’ woman too? and what about His address to Mary Magdelene , whom he also calls ’ woman ’ at the Resurrection? I seem to be stuck on this!
Can anyone help?
I know it’s not a major stumbling block, but its just niggling at me!