I’m currently in a discussion with a protestant and need some help with a few arguments against the immaculate conception.
I have read on how typology is used for the old testament ark and Mary. (catholic.com/magazine/articles/mary-the-ark-of-the-new-covenant) and some other sources. One question about that specific article though is the instance of the ark going back to Jerusalem and Mary bringing Jesus to the temple. How is this specific to Mary since most/all Jews would do this? (Is it safe to ignore/ not use that particular similarity of going to the temple to present Jesus?) Also why is Mary used for the typology of the ark? Is Jesus not also suitable to be used?
The explanation for Mary’s state of grace when Gabriel visited her is easy to explain with the greek text of “full of grace” and its grammar. But all the grammar shows that she was graced in the past and will continue in grace (correct?) I can’t find any specific way to show that the grace was there at the time of conception since the term past is not specific. I am hoping for some more explicit support but implicit would be fine too.
The question of if Mary is sinless why did she die? I know that Mary’s physical death is not agreed on. But let’s assume that she did. Why and how? I know the argument that Jesus was sinless but he still died a physical death, but the reason for his death would be our salvation. What about Mary, what would be the benefit of her death? And how would she have died, since she is sinless she couldn’t commit suicide obviously or is my understanding that the consequence of sin is the physical death wrong?
Thanks for your help!