Mary question


I was talking to a protestant about the immacualte conception and i showed him how “full of grace” in the greek is “Kecharetomine” which is better translated as “she who has been perfected by grace” thus attempting to show how God had perfected mary. But he pulled out Hebrews 10:14 which says “He perfected forever thoes who are being sanctified.”

What he was basically saying is that all who are in christ have been perfected by his sacrifice on the cross and that mary is no different then anyone else.

how should i respond to this?


Slap him on the back and shout :amen: because that is precisely what the Catholic Church teaches concerning the Blessed Virgin!

He has just dropped his whole oppositional argument in your lap because the whole point is that we believe that she was the recipient of that grace at her conception due to the unique purpose she was called to.

However, where he errs is that this grace was indeed applied to Mary at conception as opposed to the rest of us. Mary knew it! Look at Luke 1:46 And Mary said: My soul doth magnify the Lord. 47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour. 48 Because he hath regarded the humility of his handmaid; for behold from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed. 49 Because he that is mighty, hath done great things to me; and holy is his name.


I was thinking the same - kecharitomene what grammatists call, I believe a past-perfect tense - in other words Mary, before even having been greeted by the angel and well before agreeing to become Christ’s mother, had ALREADY been fully perfected in grace.


:thumbsup: :slight_smile:


His citation of Hebrews 10:14 is another example of the Fundamentalist tendency to isolate a single verse and remove it from its entire context according to his own bias. This verse should be taken as part of verses 11 to 18: Whereas the levitical priesthood offered daily sacrifices that were ineffectual in remitting sin (11), Jesus offered a single sacrifice that won him a permanent place at God’s right hand. There he has only to await the final outcome of his work (12-13). Thus he has brought into being in his own person the new covenant prophesied by Jeremiah (Jer 31:33-34) that has rendered meaningless all other offerings for sin (14-18). Indeed, Mary was redeemed in advance by Christ’s single self-offering on the cross and so was spared the stain of original sin from the moment of conception. But the rest of us who have been redeemed by our Saviour inherited the sin of Adam nonetheless and were in need of Baptism to sanctify us. Mary was in no need to be baptized, and we were not conceived freed from original sin. The verse from Hebrew is not telling us that all of us have been immaculately conceived; nor does it deny the Immaculate Conception of Mary. On the contrary, it shows us how Mary’s singular privilege could have been granted before she was even born. The Immaculate Conception is not simply about Mary having been sanctified and perfected. It’s about the Mother of God having been spared original sin altogether and her subsequent sinless life. Although Christ has died once and for all time to restore our sanctified and perfect spiritual state, every other human creature who has been born before and after his death on the cross inherited the sin of Adam and has sinned in his life. The final outcome of Christ’s work is yet to be determined on the last day. Every human being will be judged for his faith and deeds except Mary. She has already been resurrected from the dead with her Assumption into heaven.

Pax vobiscum
Good Fella :cool:

closed #6

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