Sorry - you must be sick of questions about Mary. Here’s two more.
1a. What does it mean when Mary is called “full of grace” (Douay-Reims Luke 1:28)? I had to hunt hard for a translation that actually said that - none of my protestant Bibles do and neither does the New Jerusalem. Memo to self - must look more closely at the Greek and the different translations.
1b. What does it mean when Stephen is called “full of grace”? (Douay-Reims Acts 6:8 also written by Luke so easy to presume that it may mean something similar).
2a. What does it mean for Mary to be “blessed among women” (Douay-Reims Luke 1:42)?
3b. What does it mean for Jahel to be “blessed among women” (Douay-Reims Judges 5:24). She’s even more blessed than that elsewhere - in sometranslations she is “blessed above women”. In the New Jerusalem she is “most blessed of women”. And all for hammering a peg through Sisera’s head with a mallet.
I am on the way to Catholicism - but have a lot of “Mary issues” like many people coming to the church from other churches. I see that much is made of the words when they are applied to Mary. But they are also applied to someone else. Do they mean something different when applied to someone who isn’t Mary? And if so, why?
Stephen was called “full of grace” but obviously wasn’t redeemed at the moment of his conception. Why do the words necessarily have to mean that Mary was? (This isn’t an argument that the Immaculate Conception didn’t happen but I really don’t understand this).
Many of the titles given to Mary which I’d previously fought against are now ones I can accept - knowing what they mean rather than what I had been taught they meant. Mother of God, new Eve etc. Once you understand exactly what they mean they cease to become a doctrinal knot. But the above questions (and quite a few others) I have yet to understand.