Mary Sinless?

I heard that mary was sinless. But if she was sinless then why did she give up a sarafice in
luke 2:22-24

Here is my article on the matter. :wink:
The misuse of Luke 2:22-24 against the Immaculate Conception

In short, going through a purification ritual doesn’t mean the person is in need of what that ritual signifies. Another case in point is Jesus accepting John the Baptist’s baptism of repentance even though he was not in need of repentance.

Obedience.

For the same reason that Jesus (who was sinless) underwent Baptism.

She was Jewish and still followed the rules of the Jews (law of Moses). She and Joseph were obedient and righteous just was we should be to the laws of the church.

It might not have dawned on Mary that she was sinless, for one. Also, the
Law was the Law, so whether Mary was aware or not that she was perfect,
Mary would have obeyed the Law.

Childbearing is not a sin.

Something that has been brought recently even on the radio program by Tim Staples is this:

Luke
1:28** And upon entering, the Angel said to her: “Hail, full of grace.** The Lord is with you. Blessed are you among women.”
1:29 And when she had heard this, she was disturbed by his words, and she considered what kind of greeting this might be.

The Angel entering to visit Mary did not call her "Hail, Mary"
Instead the Angel called her “full of grace”.

In fact she was troubled by her being called like that. After all a true humble soul will never exalt him/herself by believing that is “sinless” even if in fact is is.
For only God can make such a claim, we as creatures do not have all the knowledge to make such a statement even about ourselves.

Now in the Old Testament, God goes to great lenght to show us how names are very important. Over and over when there is a significant event the name gets changed to signify the importance.
In Isaiah we see that Jesus would be called “Emmanuel” that is a proper name and it means what Jesus was “God is with us” in Jesus’s case this was literally true.

So in lieu of all this what is so significant that the Angel called Mary “Full of grace”?
It obviously reflects on the true nature of Mary! She is not “Full of grace” in the sense of a glass half full or half empty, no she is the essence of a “full of grace” being.
What is such an essence?
Well the same as “Emmanuel” being the essence of “God is with us” albeit he was named Jesus as His given name.
Mary was named “Full of grace” by God, although everyone else knew her by “Mary”

Can having sin be compatible with “full of grace”?

God is not illogical and those 2 properties are at odd with each other. You cannot be sinfull not matter how slight or small and BE “full of grace”

This for me pretty much nails Mary’s sinlessness from her conception to her assumption.
You cannot change your nature and her nature was “full of grace”
**
Merry Christmas to one and all. May the new year bring happiness love and peace to all.**

This! :thumbsup:

[quote=DavidFilmer] For the same reason that Jesus (who was sinless) underwent Baptism.
[/quote]

Jesus’ baptism wasn’t a prescription of Mosaic law, though…

D-R Bible, Haydock Commentary:

Ver. 22. Of her purification. The blessed Virgin mother stood not in need of this ceremony, to which she submitted herself, as her Son did to that of circumcision. (Witham) — Whence St. Lawrence Justinian in his sermon on the purification, very well observes: grace raised the Virgin above the law; humility subjected her to it. Jesus Christ, in subjecting himself to the law of Moses, has left an example to princes and magistrates, to obey their own laws; for then they may expect them to be observed by others, when themselves shew respect to them. (Barradius.)

Ver. 23. Every male opening the womb.[2] This translation is more conformable to the doctrine of the Fathers, that Christ was born without opening the womb; which Ven. Bede calls the doctrine of the Catholic Church. (Witham) — See Exodus xiii. 2. and Numbers viii. 16.

Ver. 24. This was the offering of the poorer classes.

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