I sent an email to one of the Apologists asking for clarification on the following thread:
Some of the response given states “God could have cleansed us from original sin by simply willing it. But we would have been left knowing of His infinite love for us as an abstraction.”
Since I haven’t heard back from the Apologist, that is the reason I am asking the question here:
We know Mary was conceived without original sin because of the PERSON she was to give birth to. **Because of her Immaculate Conception, was Mary’s knowledge of God’s love also an abstraction? ** Personally I don’t think so. If that is true for Mary, why should it be not be true for us as well?