Mary's Salvation

I just got home from Mass, and on the way home a thought occurred to me:
If Mary was conceived immaculately without sin, and Jesus died on the cross for our sins, then does that mean Jesus did not die (necessarily) for Mary’s salvation?
I know this cannot be correct because it would make Christ, the son, an unneeded and therefore imperfect part of God in the Trinity. If God is not perfect, then God is not God. So I must be wrong.

Does my reasoning stem from an incorrect knowledge of Mary or an incorrect knowledge about Christ’s salvation through the cross?

The best argument I can come up with against my thought is that Mary has free will, and still had the option to sin, and if she did, then Christ’s sacrifice would be necessary for her salvation. I am not sure if this is a strong criticism.

Can someone please shed some light on my reasoning? I yearn to know more, so please correct my reasoning in every way possible.

Thank you.

Nope…what it means is that the sacrifice of Christ was applied preemptively to the Blessed Virgin.

Check these out.

[LIST]
*]Can you help me answer a Protestant’s questions about the Immaculate Conception?
*]The Immaculate Conception, Then and Now
*]The Immaculate Conception (Pre-recorded)
*]The Immaculate Conception in Scripture
*]Is the Doctrine of the Immaculate Conception a Catholic Invention? Video
*]Immaculate Conception and Assumption
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Ahh I understand now. I was forgetting that God being outside of time can apply salvation at anytime. By this reasoning those who died before the crucifixion can be saved as well. Makes total sense! Thanks for the help!

Glad to have been able to be of assistance.

Have a great Advent and a beautiful and blessed Christmas.

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