Today I was speaking with two Protestants about divorce, remarriage and adultery when one of them said it was okay if one of them had sex with somebody else citing their Bible:
32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Whereas I cited my Bible:
32 But I say this to you, everyone who divorces his wife, except for the case of an illicit marriage, makes her an adulteress; and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
I tried to explain that there’s was wrong and we had a bit of a chat about it.
Does anyone know the Aramaic and/or Koine Greek for this part?
I know that ours is correct as theirs seems like a get out clause.
Any help in this area would be great.