Matthew 6:13 Our Father


How do I refute that the Catholic Church took out “For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever” from the Bible?
Revelation 22:18-19 " And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy"
Deuteronomy 4:2 “neither shall you take away from it”

Or can I explain that the words had been added and was not the words Jesus taught the Apostels.

Matthew 6:9-13

King James Version (KJV)

13 And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen.

Matthew 6:13

Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA)

13 And lead us not into temptation. But deliver us from evil. Amen.


Bible scholars have said that the phrase "for thine is the kingdom...." was a side notation by a translator that was later inserted into the text. It is noted as such in most Bibles that do not include it within the text. That phrase was not original to the text, therefore no one can be guilty of removing it. Besides this, translations often include/exclude words/verses/passages that are questionable in origin, but even so they are explained/includeded in the reference notes.

The verse from Revelation does not refer to the whole text of the established biblical canon. If that were the case your Protestant friends would be guilty of removing Scripture when the reformers deleted the Deutrocanonicals. The canon of Scripture took centuries to be settled, making their claim untenable and unapplicable.

The verse in Revelation applies only to the revelation St. John received which comprises the Book of the Revelation. Dt. 4:2 applied to the Law of Moses, which Christ fulfilled. If we were supposed to take this literalistically, Christ would be guilty of "adding" to the Law of Moses when he made his, "Moses taught you this, but I say unto you this...." statements.

Reading the Bible literalistically lets people draw odd conclusions not intended by the writers of the Holy Scriptures.


My theory on so-called additions and omissions like that are a result of the original authors writing more than one copy of their document. Not only making more than one copy, but also writing them in more than one language such as Greek and Aramaic, and possibly Hebrew since they spoke more than one language and were intended it to be read by people who spoke in those languages. If I was going to write such an important account as that I would write it multiple times and ask my co-workers to help me make copies as I over-see their copies. And if they wrote multiple copies then it is very possible the same author made some interpolations to expand on what they have been writing.

Those lengthy additions and omissions in my opinion are original readings but they are from various copies by the same authors. Ancient painters did the same thing, they made more than one painting of the same thing, it does not make any of their copies less original.


From what I understand “Thine by the Glory….” was part of the Catholic mass until it started showing up in the Bible as part of the Our Father and the Church who can remove parts of the liturgy and they are especially obligated to if it is confusing the faithful and doing what Revelation says not to do. It is just now starting to make a very slow come back into Catholic mass. There isn’t any reason why Catholics would take it out; it just never belonged there to begin with because it was part of the mass not part of the Our Father. There are Pre-Reformation Bibles in existence that do not have it in there. You could also ask your protestant friend why they are missing books from the Bible.


For "Thine is the glory..." is from a 1st century document called The Didache, which includes liturgical copy. *As this broken bread was once scattered on the mountains, and after it had been brought together became one, so may thy Church be gathered together from the ends of the earth unto thy kingdom; for thine is the glory, and the power, through Jesus Christ, for ever. (Didache, 9.4)*As far as I know, a copy editor for KJV inserted it. If you look at ancient manuscripts, you don't see the words there, for example this scan of the ancient Codex Sinaiticus.

More info



Hi Rooibok,

This is so basic, you have to believe that your Protestant friends are not very well versed in bible study. It is dilfficult to fight ignorance that refuses illumination. The addition was made at some point by a zealous copyist who was used to hearing it at mass. The critical edition of the New Testament first published by Eherhard Nestlé (a Protestant Bible scholar) puts the phrase in the critical apparatus (scholarly footnotes) with a list of the manuscripts that have it.

The King James version used one of the manuscripts descended from that original error.



Thank you for all the replies - much appreciated
God Bless


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