Aren’t the latin fathers fathers to you? Or are only Greek speaking fathers the ones that count? Aren’t all fathers equally fathers? This shouldn’t be point be that it’s found in the patrimony of the church period. Rather than found in the “latin” patrimony.
That’s simply not true. The Immaculate conception wa aquite popular a few centuries ago amongst Easterners Orthodox. A group of Russian priests had an order dedicated to the Immaculate conception. At the council of Florence Mark of Ephesus, ironically, defended the Immaculate conception against the Dominicans (who opposed it following St Thomas Aquinas).
The evidence in the fathers of the east is there too for many of these concepts. One patriarch of Jerusalem blatantly called he pope infallible. The ecumenical councils all hint at it when saying the Roman see had not and would not ever fall into error. Patriarch Terasisus of Constantinople at the 7th ecumenical Council confesses the Filioque saying the Holy Spirit proceeds eternally from the Father through the Son
(Not just a temporal mission) and that wa accepted in the official acts of the council without debate. I can go on and on.
I have never imposed a western understanding and no amount of repeating this untruth will make it true. Dogmas are neither eatsern nor western. They are just true.
In Eastern Orthodoxy yes. In eastern Catholicism he can as well as in Oriental Orhtodoxy and in the Assyrian tradition. The Byzantine Orthodox tradition used to have such powers for its patriarchs if you care to look at their history but excessive conciliarims diminished the patriarchs power together with the local bishop. Hence during the reunion efforts amongst Ruthenians, the main argument for communion was more power for local bishops and patriarchs and being freed of the strangle of the synod.