Another passage that is more illustrative of the temporal-only nature of marriage is Romans 7:1-3. Here Paul is using marriage to illustrate that the law only applies to people while they are alive, and ceases at their death.
Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth?
For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband.
So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man.
If eternal marriage was the norm among the early Christians, then why did St. Paul affirm that when a woman’s husband dies, she is free to marry again? He did not differentiate between “temple marriage” and civil marriage.
In fact, there is no mention of an eternal marriage of man and woman in scripture, or in the writings of the early church fathers. There is only one eternal marriage in the scriptures - the marriage of Jesus to His Bride, the Church.
In fact, even the enemies of the Church, who wrote scathingly against the Christians and their doctrines, give us a good deal of info about what were perceived by non-Christians to be early Christian doctrine. Those enemies, many of whom were disaffected apostates from the Church, never mention a notion of eternal marriage, or temple work for the dead, or polygamy or godhood or any other distinctly Mormon doctrine. Surely if these were taught by the early Church, it would have given the enemies of the Church a great deal of ammunition with which to attack. But there is never a mention of any distinctly Mormon doctrine.
Can any Mormon offer an explanation as to why that is?