Muslim women's ABC


In another thread I was trying to understand if Muslim women’s birth control without the consent of her husband can possibly mean she can contracept without her husband’s knowledge.

I copied and pasted the quote below from the following website.


**Can a woman practice birth control without the consent of her husband? **

The wife has full right to the use of contraceptives even without the approval of her husband. (Minhaj, vol. 2, p. 276) However, she should not use a method which may come in the way of her husband’s conjugal rights. For example, she cannot force him to use condom or practice coitus interruptus. This rule is based upon the principle that the extent of the husband’s conjugal rights over his wife is just that she should be sexually available, responsive, and cooperative. This right does not extend to that of bearing children for him. Bearing children or not is a personal decision of the woman; and therefore, she may use contraceptives provided they do not come in the way of her husband’s conjugal rights.


What you’ve quoted from is a Shi’a website, by the way. I won’t speak for Shi’a as I don’t know their teachings well enough to determine whether this website represents their views or not; but in orthodox Islam such a thing would considered deeply wrong.


I apologize if this is off-topic, but I once heard that a Muslim man has the right to repudiate his wife if she doesn’t bear him a son, since it is a wife’s duty to do so. This would seem to contradict what the cited website says on the issue of child-bearing, so I’m wondering if I was misinformed, or if the rules have changed?:confused:


Thanks. My gut told me there was something strange about this.

Can you tell me orthodox Islamic beliefs?

I had asked in the other thread if Islamic and Catholic moral teachings are alike. Catholics and nearly all serious Protestants
part ways on the moral issue of birth control.

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