[quote="Austringer, post:3, topic:240258"]
Thanks, Rence -- I know that that is the position of the Church now, but this person was saying that it was different prior to Vatican ll. Do you know if that's true?
Rather than have us trying to look up documents which probably don't exist, I think it is up to your friend to provide the proof.
You can tell him that people here have done extensive searches of the Vatican web site, the old Baltimore Catechism, Google, Yahoo, Dogpile, Ask.com, and the USCCB web site and found absolutely nothing to indicate that the current teaching has not been the case prior to as well as after Vatican II. Study of the Vatican II documents doesn't show a 'change' either.
So he needs to show a proof of his claim. . .I certainly haven't found anything in the above searches to support it.
I'm speaking for the U.S. of course. Different countries have different laws regarding civil divorce and so there may not have been a perception (because of such) that any party in the divorce could be viewed as innocent. But I believe the Church teaching would have been the same in all countries.