Riddle me this???
DW and I have been using NFP (self-taught) for 8 months now in an effort to DELAY pregnancy. Guess what! Found out yesterday (4/7) that she’s pregnant???:eek:
A little background. This summer I will be 45 and DW will be 41. We currently have 6 kids ranging in age from 17 to 2. We have been meticulously attempting to use NFP to delay pregnancy b/c of OUR age and the fact that we are a single income SAHM family. Child #1 (daughter) will be going off to college this fall and I have been scrambling to find the resources to pay for this.
So here’s the part I am confused by. In the month of March DW started a new cycle on the 3rd. On day 6 of her cycle (3/8) she bid AF good-by around lunchtime. That night we engaged in the “marital embrace”. We did NOT engage in any marital act again until day 29. The chart showed no pattern of temp shift and DW said that there was NO mucous all month. Based on the mucous signs (or lack thereof) and lack of definitive temp shift we figured it “safe” on day 29. ??
By day 36, DW figured either she’s in the midst of peri-menopause and not ovulating this month or she’s pregnant. Guess what HPT came back positive almost instantly.
In retrospect I do recall DW mentioning to me that she has some “slippery moisture issues” on day 7 AND 8 but dismissed it as SF.??? Apparently not! Mucous on days 7 and 8? According to the literature that’s not supposed to happen.
In the 8 months that we’ve been charting her longest cycle was 32 days and the shortest was 18. They were back-to-back btw, and the 32-day cycle appeared to be anovulatory. Every other cycle has been normal with definitive temp shifts and of normal length (25-28 days).
So what am I to think of the NFP stats that say it’s OK to engage in the marital embrace up until day 7ish with no possibility of pregnancy?
I know this is a little lengthy and a bit of a rant mixed with some rambling…but my head is SPINNING.
What happened here? I need expert speculation. Thanks for listening/reading.