I had a question about dispensations. I’ve always been under the assumption that once someone is dispensed, he is dispensed. But now I’m wondering about something, and I wanted others’ thoughts on the matter:
(1) Sally makes a private vow to say Vespers every evening.
(2) After some time, she decides that instead of dedicating that time solely to Vespers. It’d be better for her spiritually to free it up for other devotions.
(3) In view of statement 2, she goes through the proper channels and obtains a dispensation from her pastor. Her intention is to free up that time for other devotions.
(4) She did not receive the dispensation on the condition that she use that time for other devotions. Sure, she mentioned her intentions to the Pastor, but they did not become some sort of contractual requirement for the dispensation.
(5) In the end, Sally never ended up using that time for other devotions, though. As it turns out, she went off to college and just ends up watching Netflix at that time now. She didn’t follow through on her intentions.
My question is: Does this invalidate her dispensation? Does her private vow to say Vespers re-instate itself because she didn’t follow through on her intentions?**
To me, it seems that it doesn’t. Even though she didn’t follow through on her intentions, her intentions in the first place were still good. It wasn’t as if I she was deceiving her pastor at the time she asked. Also, once again, it wasn’t as if she made a contractual agreement that she was dispensed on the condition that she use that time for other devotions. I suppose you could liken it to confession. We go and we receive absolution with honest intentions not to sin again, but we do stray away. That doesn’t mean our absolution was invalid.
At any rate, can I get any thoughts on this?