Is it morally permissable for the husband to manually stimulate his wife to orgasm before AND after intercourse? Or is it only allowed either before OR after?
Morally the only requirement is that when a man orgasms it must be during intercourse (accidents are not sinful though), and that an honest attempt must be made for the woman to orgasm.
Now it is considered ideal that simultaneous orgasm be achieved by the spouses, but it is not at all a requirement and couples who can not achieve this due to conflicts in the way their particular physiology seems to work should not be at all ashamed by their marital act being different from others.
Before, during or / and after is ok as long as it is within the context of the marital act.
A follow-up to the original question:
For a couple practicing NFP, is it morally permissible for the husband to help his wife reach orgasm during the fertile period while not reaching orgasm himself?
And someone please guide me here: If a couple is on their honeymoon and is inexperienced sexually…it seems that many different “situations” that occur could result in the man ejaculating outside of the woman accidentally (although it’s an accident that could realistically be anticipated)…is this wrong even if the couple intends to have natural intercourse very soon after?