[quote=jphilapy]Howdy folks, I am interested to know how the catholic church views the following.:
What exactly does it mean that Jesus was born without original sin?
Having Original Sin is the same as lacking Sanctifying Grace. Or exactly what jimmy said.
The absence of sanctifying grace-
is an effect of the first sin, for Adam, having received holiness and justice from God, lost it not only for himself but also for us (loc. cit., can. ii). If he has lost it for us we were to have received it from him at our birth with the other prerogatives of our race.
The absence of sanctifying grace is a real privation (absence or lacking), it is the want of something that should have been according to the Divine plan.
Sanctifying grace therefore enters into the moral order, it is a turning towards God. Consequently the lack of this grace, even without any other act, would be a stain, a moral deformity, a turning away from God, and this is not found in any other effect of the fault of Adam. This lack of Sanctifying Grace, therefore, is the hereditary stain.
Are you saying that Jesus doesn’t have the basic elements of sin in his flesh?
That is correct. Original Sin is passed down from Adam. Jesus is a product of Mary (no Original Sin) and the Holy Spirit.
But, as a result of the original seperation from God (brought about by Adam and Eve) we also experience things BESIDES Original Sin:
**Death and Suffering-**These are purely physical evils and cannot be called sin. Moreover St. Paul, and after him the councils, regarded death and original sin as two distinct things transmitted by Adam.
**Concupiscence-**This rebellion of the lower appetite transmitted to us by Adam is an occasion of sin and in that sense comes nearer to moral evil. However, the occasion of a fault is not necessarily a fault, and whilst original sin is effaced by baptism concupiscence still remains in the person baptized; therefore original sin and concupiscence cannot be one and the same thing, as was held by the early Protestants (see Council of Trent, Sess. V, can. v).
What you are referring to relates to concupiscence.
I guess what I am confused about is that scripture says Jesus was tempted like all men are. Does that mean he was tempted in event only, but he never felt sinful temptations?
See above comment on concupiscence.
Are all men except Jesus born in bondage to sin? Or are they born free from the bondage but later bring themselves into bondage?
All are born seperated from God (except Mary and Jesus that we know of). But this doesn’t mean they do not feel the urges to sin. But an urge to sin is not neccesarily a sin.
As an aside Baptism removes this Stain of Original Sin from Catholics as infants and invites the Holy Spirit to assist us in remaining free from sin.
Catholic Encyclopedia on Original Sin: