I’m writing my senior thesis, and I’m using Søren Kierkegaard as my primary source. As I was reading his book Concept of Anxiety, I got to wondering about the nature of Original Sin (what he calls hereditary sin) for our first parents. When they committed this first sin, did the sin look the same for them as it does for us? We’re born with it, but did they “get” Original Sin, or would we refer to the consequence of their first sin- as it directly relates to them- as something different?
They had a state called original justice lost through a mortal sin, but were free from concupiscence. (See Catechism No. 375-377, 398.) Inherited original sin of Adam is different than their personal mortal sins, but the death was twofold: of the soul and of the body. They lost both the supernatural gift of grace and preternatural gifts.
They didn’t have concupiscence at first, but wouldn’t they have had concupiscence after the Fall?
Yes, freedom from concupiscence is called the preternatural gift of integrity which was lost. Integrity is the perfect subjection of the concupiscible and irascible appetitive powers to the dictates of reason and free will.
What does Soren say about original sin?
The new world they stepped into is the same one we inherit. Spiritually dead, cut off from God by preferring themselves to Him as the catechism teaches. That separation is the chief aspect of OS and, itself, constitutes a state of injustice for man. Man was made for communion with God. The Church teaches that, in some manner fallen man is divided from God, from his fellow man, from the rest of creation, and within his own self.
Among other things, loss of innocence and chaos/disorder: sin, would characterize their new existence. Good and evil would literally and viscerally be known, as separate realities experienced in this very non-Edenic world where the Master is effectively gone away.
Obviously from Genesis - Original Sin did not exist when they were first created by God.
Their Sin against God’s one Command given to them was/is as a most momentous event in History…
I’m aware. What I’m asking is if they were also “infected” by original sin, despite not being born into the condition, or if we would refer to their state of sinfulness differently than our own.
Differently. They caused the state of a fallen human nature; for them, it was a personal sin. For us – who inherit a fallen human nature – “original sin” is sin “by analogy”, and is not personal sin.
No… no such thing…
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