I’ve been looking up original sin and how they differ between the East and West. I’ve been tying this with whether the Virgin Mary would have had a painless birth or not while considering that she had no sin.
So my questions are…
Are the preternatural gifts, added/extra qualities of man before the fall so that the fall let man lose these qualities and hence death… or is it part of the intrinsic image/being of man and so losing these gifts leave man lacking in his being, and so death comes from that through the fall.
So the first details man was created, and the gifts and sanctifying grace was put into/onto man. The second details man was created and the gifts and sanctifying grace was intrinsically part of man. It’s sort of how (if I recall correctly) the church defined original sin as the lack of sanctifying grace (while the Virgin Mary certainly had grace with the Immaculate Conception), however the East see the Immaculate Conception as unnecessary because Mary wasn’t lacking anything due to their view of ancestral sin?
I ask this because the Blessed Virgin Mary still aged and died (with her bodily assumption occurring of course). I understand a common response is that it was to better conform with her Son’s death on the cross, however I am trying to find a theological explanation outside of just conforming and more based on ideas of Immaculate Conception and Assumption. Based on the details mentioned, I am leaning towards the former (gifts are extra/added qualities of man) because if true, then Mary could be a perfect human being (without original sin) and may still age and die because the preternatural gifts are extras laid on top of man’s being which wasn’t given to Mary. Similar with Jesus, He experienced pain and death although He was perfect, because even though perfection as a human, He was not given the preternatural gifts (and because He was mean’t to die for us).
This is based on the former question, but based on Revelation 12, it says the Women had pain. I know this is up to much interpretation, especially being an apocalyptic genre, but just simply if this describes Mary having pain in child birth, then does the former explanation in question 1 explain this? Preternatural gifts include no pain, but because preternatural gifts are extra on top of man, Mary was without original sin but can still feel pain from childbirth because lack of original sin does not guarantee the preternatural gifts (and presence of original sin guarantees lack of preternatural gifts). And how does this fit in with Isaiah 66:7?
- God created man, and preternatural gifts are bestowed upon the complete and already perfect creation of man. This explains why Mary could still age and feel pain (such as childbirth) because although lacking original sin, she was not bestowed these preternatural gifts. And this is because preternatural gifts are not intrinsic to being of man, so to not have original sin does not guarantee the preternatural gifts. Is this in line with Catholic teaching, or is this view somehow incorrect?