I’m so confused about the RC teaching on Original sin. I tried reading the CCC, but it seemed to confuse me even more.
I read paragraphs CCC 402-421 on the original sin, however, I’m confused as to whether the RCC teaches that each person is “guilty” of Adam’s sin? That Adam’s sin is passed to his descendents or not?
on the one hand paragraph 419 suggests there is “We therefore hold, with the Council of Trent, that original sin is transmitted with human nature, “by propagation, not by imitation” and that it is. . . ‘proper to each’” (Paul VI, CPG § 16)" (CCC 419)
But paragraph 405 says something that appears to me to be somewhat contradictory “Although it is proper to each individual, original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence”. Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle." (CCC 405)
Thanks for the help. God bless.