I’ve been defending the Catholic interpretation of Matt. 16:18-19 to a Protestant friend, and he asked me a specific question that has me stumped.
My defense was based on what I learned from Karl Keating’s tract about “Peter the Rock” but mostly from Tim Staples treatment of the subject at envoymagazine.com/backissues/2.2/nutsandbolts.html.
I don’t intend for this thread to delve into all the language nuances of petra/petros and kepha etc. – I already know that stuff (and it’s been discussed here). But in Tim Staples’ piece, he made a statement that my friend is challenging me to back up. Specifically, when describing the Aramaic kepha, Tim wrote that “In Aramaic, nouns do not have gender as they do in Greek.”
My friend disagrees that Aramaic nouns lack gender, and wonders what Aramaic lexicon I am using. (I haven’t let on that it’s not me but Mr. Staples that supplies my arguments!)
So does anyone know of a lexicon or a specific book on Aramaic that supports Tim’s claim?