So I have a Protestant family member who thinks you can receive the Holy Spirit before Baptism using primarily Acts 10:44-49.
The Baptism of Cornelius. 44 While Peter was still speaking these things, the holy Spirit fell upon all who were listening to the word.[a] 45 The circumcised believers who had accompanied Peter were astounded that the gift of the holy Spirit should have been poured out on the Gentiles also, 46 for they could hear them speaking in tongues and glorifying God. Then Peter responded, 47 “Can anyone withhold the water for baptizing these people, who have received the holy Spirit even as we have?” 48 He ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. 49 Then they invited him to stay for a few days.
This family member is a Pentecostal, so they believe speaking in tongues is the sign of receiving the holy Spirit also. They have to speak in tongues. So I was wondering the reason why Peter said that they received the holy Spirit, so why not baptized them?