"If a man commits adultery with the wife of his neighbour, both the adulterer and the adulteress shall be put to death." (Lev 20:10)
It seems that the Law of Moses, as well as specifying what the prohibitions are, often specifies the punishment as well.
However, in the encounter between Jesus and the adulterous who was in danger of being stoned to death (Jn 8:1-11), it would seem to me, Jesus separates the sin from the punishment that is owing for it. In other words, Jesus brought attention to the sin ("sin no more" 8.11) but he did not, in justice, want to see her stoned ("go on your way..." 8.11).
Is it right to say that in thinking of the Divine Law, while an action can be objectively sinful and doesn't change from era to era, the proper and most appropriate punishment for the sin might indeed change?
Has there been any good studies done on the distinction between Crime and Punishment in the Divine Law?