"For thine is the kingdom, and the power,
and the glory, for ever and ever. - Amen"
See also: Matthew 6:13
The doxology of the prayer is not contained in Luke's version, nor is it present
in the earliest manuscripts of Matthew, representative of the Alexandrian text,
but is present *in the manuscripts representative of the *Byzantine text. It
is thus absent in the oldest and best manuscripts of Matthew, and *
most scholars do not consider it part of the original text of Matthew*.
Modern translations generally omit it....
...Latin Rite Roman Catholics... ...do not use it when reciting the Lord's Prayer, but it
has been included as an independent item, not as part of the Lord's Prayer, in
the Roman Rite Mass.
So with that little piece of information (from the questionable Wikipedia), what am I to
make of this? Should I be disturbed that the (non-Latin rite) churches I go to use the
Doxology at the end of the Lord's Prayer, or what? I'm aware that many churches (at
least in Arizona) aren't exactly traditional (which I **think **is bad), but how should I feel
about this matter? (I'm not *SO *concerned, just thought I'd ask).