Hello all. I would like to ask a question about the filioque.
From this 1995 clarification on the filioque released by the Pontifical Council for Promoting Christian Unity, I got that the Greek Patristic Tradition has two words to describe the procession of the Holy Spirit. One was ekporeusis, and the other was proienai. Ekporeusis is the spiration of the Holy Spirit from the principle without principle, ie the Father alone. Therefore the ekporeusis of the Holy Spirit can only be said to be from the Father, and not from the Son, but through the Son, as He has a mediating role in the ekporeusis. It can be said that the Holy Spirit has His proienai from the Father and the Son, as proienai is the more general term for spiration, and not exclusive to the spiration from the principle without principle.
However, this link quotes the decree from the Council of Florence, saying that in the greek version, the Holy Spirit has His “ekporeuetai” from both. This, as I understand it, is wrong, as ekporeusis can only be said to be from the Father.
My questions are:
- Does the greek decree from the Council of Florence really say that the Spirit has His ekporeuetai from both the Father and the Son? The link author cites the book “Decrees of the Ecumenical Councils” by Norman P Tanner. Is this true?
- If the quote was true, then the decree is in error, as per the clarification from the Pontifical Council. But how can this be, since the Council of Florence is an ecumenical council, and thus infallible?