Question regarding "All things whatsoever the Father has are mine."

Greetings, Catholic board members.

Two passages will be presented prior to asking two questions:

John 14:24 - These words you hear are not my own; they belong to the Father who sent me.

John 16:15 - All things whatsoever the Father has are mine. Therefore I said, that he shall receive of mine, and shew it to you.

Question:
If all things the Father has are also Jesus’, and Jesus says that He and the Father are one, could you give a clarification as to
1) Why Jesus says he will ask the Father (John 14:16) for Him to send the Paraclete after he has gone to the Father, and also
2) Why are his words that are being heard not his own if all things the Father has are also his?

Hopefully any answers will benefit all who participate with or perceive the thread.

Thank you for any of your time and efforts.

Blessed Be God Forever

There are other passages like this:
“Father, if it be your will, let this cup pass from me.”
“Father, why have you forsaken me.”
“If you have seen me, you have seen the Father”.
“I and the Father are one”.

The reason these seem contradictory is because Jesus had both a human and a divine nature. In His human nature, He suffered pains that humans do. The hurts of the flesh or emotional pains. In His divine nature, He was (and is) in perfect union of glory with the Father.
They are not his words, means, they are not merely the words of the human being (which He might have been perceived as) - but of God Himself. God the Father could not speak as a human person, so there was that difference in the incarnation.
As for the question on the Paraclete – good question. I really don’t know! I’m sure a theologian or two has explained it.
But in John 14:16 Jesus asks the Father.
In John 16:7 Jesus says: “If I do not go the Paraclete will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you.”
There it seems Jesus will send the Paraclete.
This is why we say the Holy Spirit “Proceeds from the Father and the Son”.
But I don’t have a good answer at all for your good question.:slight_smile:

I think Jesus is revealing to us the nature of the Holy Trinity, i.e., the three persons in one God and from whom does one person proceed from the other or others. Sometimes Jesus’ words can also be taken as well as coming from his human nature.

To question 1: Since the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son, sometimes Jesus refers to the Father sending the Holy Spirit as in John 14:16 and 15:26 or as Jesus himself sending the Holy Spirit as in John 16:7,15 and John 20:22 when after Jesus rose from the dead, he appeared to the disciples, breathed on them and said ‘Receive the Holy Spirit.’

To question 2: when Jesus says that his words are not his own, this can be understood as Jesus speaking according to his human nature or his divine nature. In his human nature, I think what Jesus says is self explanatory, he reveals to us what he has learnt from the Father just as the prophets of the Old Testament revealed what God spoke to them through divine revelation. But this can also be understood according as Jesus is God, the second person of the Blessed Trinity. John says in the beginning of his gospel that Jesus is the Word of God. In the bosom of the Trinity, the Word that the Father speaks is first conceived in the mind or intellect of the Father so that the spoken Word is the eternal generation of God the Son from the intellect of God the Father. Thus, we have God from God, Light from Light, true God from true God which we profess in the creed every Sunday at Mass. In this sense, the words that Jesus speaks are from the Father as from their source as Jesus, God the Son, is begotten by the Father. God the Father eternally communicates his own substance and nature to God the Son so that Jesus can say in all truth ‘everything that the Father has is mine.’ Jesus is God as the Father is God and the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are distinct persons in one divine nature. Jesus is revealing the mystery of the Trinity and the distinction of the persons as well as their unity. God the Son is a distinct person in the Trinity from the Father and the Holy Spirit yet he comes from the Father as the only begotten Son of the Father. I think we can say that the word that Jesus speaks is his as he says ‘everything that the Father has is mine,’ yet when he says that the words he speaks are not his but they belong to the Father, Jesus is revealing to us that the source of the word he speaks comes from the Father as he himself is the Word of God and the only begotten Son of the Father. And when Jesus says that the Holy Spirit shall receive of mine and show it to you, he is revealing to us that the Holy Spirit proceeds from him as well as the Father.

Thanks for the participation. Both previously mentioned replies raise an aside question, although the point will be seen as a gloss because the “schism” as it is called is only being briefly glanced over rather than delving into detail:

Aside:
Since it seems to be fairly obvious, as with the previous two posters and biblical quotations, that Jesus is in relation to sending the Holy Spirit, why is it that the Filioque (“and from the Son”) is posited as one of the main reasons for the Schism of the East-West? It is not intended to change the topic of the thread, just a little musing on the side rather.

Observation:
The question still seems to be open, as the nature of asking tends toward a lacking from the human point of view (Also, *Matthew 11:27 seems to suggest the possession of all things is in relation to the divinity of the Son and not the humanity of Jesus). A person doesn’t ask for something unless it isn’t within one’s power or is requiring a consensus, as if to say there is not yet an agreement until the question is answered unanimously. Of course this is as it is with human nature, but if one were to say this is in reference strictly to the Trinity, it still maintains the question because the Trinity is defined as co-equal in person-hood while sharing one infinite and divine will, and this would seem to negate any requirement for “asking” anything. If one refers to the humanity of Jesus to answer the question, e.g., to see his breathing on the disciples as being a result of the praying of Jesus’ humanity, then this can help to remember Jesus as having the function of High-Priest and mediator for man not only in his divinity but in his humanity as it is expressed in Hebrews – even after his resurrection. It seems to be a tendency to focus on his divinity post-resurrection with his glorification, but this reinforces his aeviternal human-nature.

*****Matt 11:27 -
All things are delivered to me by my Father. And no one knows the Son, but the Father: neither does any one know the Father, but the Son, and he to whom it shall please the Son to reveal him.

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