Question regarding John 19: 19-23

My non-catholic brothers and sisters in Christ, I read the following article and was wondering one thing: why do you think Jesus personally gave His Apostles (mere sinful and fallible men) the authority to forgive sins in His name?

As per the article:

“If Jesus didn’t want men to be instruments of the Grace of His forgiveness, why was this the first thing He did when he appeared after he was raised from the dead? How fair would it be if this gift to the Apostles and all future generations of Christians were to simply cease to exist after the Apostle’s death?”

*“On the evening of that day, the first day of the week, the doors being shut where the disciples were, for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood among them and said to them, “Peace be with you.”When he had said this, he showed them his hands and his side. Then the disciples were glad when they saw the Lord.Jesus said to them again, “Peace be with you. As the Father has sent me, even so I send you.”And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, “Receive the Holy Spirit.If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.”-John 19: 19-23.

Who is more qualified to judge sins but sinners?


The announcement of the grace of God, and the declaration of Absolution of sins is one of the three great gifts a Christian has. The lifting of the burden of guilt in these simple words, “As a called and ordained servant of Christ, and by His authority, I therefore forgive you all of your sins, in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Amen.” Truly a means of grace in the same category as Baptism and the Eucharist.


I really love the fact that we MUST obey this instruction by Jesus Christ Our Lord and God. Sadly, too many have refused to acknowledge it. :frowning: Jesus main idea here was to spread the Good News for future generations and by sincerely repenting we can know God is Merciful.

What richness of Faith we’ve been given.


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