Background: I have been involved in numerous discussions with pro’s who deny, vehemently, the dogmatic titular of “Mary, Mother of God” (“Mary, Theotokos”)–as we Cat’s pray in the Hail Mary. The first few times, I was taken completely aback. (How pray tell, to you pretend to be Christian, yet you deny such an elementary principle??? Do you also deny the virgin birth? …the resurrection?..the Trinity?). Of course, as time went by, and I talked to more and more pro’s, I realized it wasn’t a rare notion, but actually fairly widely held view, amongst pros, particulary of the more fundamentalist variety…
Now, as most here surley know, the question–whether or not Mary was ‘Theotokos’ was settled by the Council of Ephesus in or around 430 AD. The rationale, was thus: Mary may rightfully be called the Mother of God, because she gave birth to Chirst–who is the second person of the Trinity, and therefore God…ergo Mary gave birth to God…ergo Mary is the Mother of God…ergo Mary Theotokos. The declaration was further buttressed by the dogmatic proclamation(s) from Necea and Constaniople, that Chirst was both fully God, and fully Man, from the moment of his conceptioin (or True God, and True man, according to the Nicene Creed).
So…here is my question:
If you deny Mary Theotokos…aren’t you implicitly, necessarily, also denying Christ’s simulteneous divinity?
IOW: If the Virgin Mary was not the Mother of God, but only the Mother of Jesus, in his humanity exclusively–doesn’t it necessarily follow that Yeshua was therefore not “God” at least up until some point after to his birth? And that therefore, at some undisclosed point after birth, he would have assumed His divinity, or otherwise become divine (assuming you confess, along with the Coucils of Niceal and Constantiople, the Trinity)?
If so, at what point might Yeshua have assumed his divinity?
Why didn’t God simply appear, or ‘manifest’ as a human being? What need of being born, and being an infant, and a child?
Why mention Mary at all, in the Bible?
Why (and upon what basis) do you believe the Church Fathers in attendance got it so wrong, at the council of Ephesus?
NOTE: this thread was inspired by another thread (Jesus not the son of Mary? Do tell…); some of these questions were posed in there…none of them were actually addressed, imo. Hopefully we’ll have better luck here, under a broader, construct, treading more familiar terrain (i.e.–Mary Mother of God, for which a famous Council was convened, resulting in a dogmatic declaration, rather than the radically novel concept of Mary not even being the Mother of Jesus).